hmac112 hmac112
  • 15-04-2015
  • Mathematics
contestada

what fraction of 1 pint is 1 cup

Respuesta :

W0lf93
W0lf93 W0lf93
  • 13-04-2017
The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint.
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

industrialzation of the united states.How did technology improve city life?examples
Identify all of the root(s) of g(x) = (x2 + 3x - 4)(x2 - 4x + 29). -1 1 -4 4 2 + 5i 2 - 5i -2 + 10i -2 - 10i
What is the x-intercept of the line with the equation 1/2x + y= -15 ? Please help
PLEASE HELP ME I NEED IT I WILL MARK YOU!!! Why did the colonies reject the Albany Plan? A. They wanted to be ruled by a central government. B. They were r
Find the area of a triangle with a base (b) of 7 feet and a height (h) of 12 feet.
Could someone help me
What important aspects were covered in the law of April 6 1830
How do you become pregnant
Because it contains just a small amount of distortion over a local area, a _____ projection map is used to make road and weather maps.
Why is it important to know the types of resources available to you? A. to find more information than you need B. to quickly and efficiently find the informati