Respuesta :
Answer:
The answer is 'm'.
Step-by-step explanation:
Here, the given expression,
[tex]\frac{\frac{m^2n^2}{p^3}}{\frac{mp}{n^2}}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{m^2n^2\times n^2}{p^3\times mp}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{m^2n^{2+2}}{p^{3+1}m}[/tex] ( [tex]a^m.a^n=a^{m+n}[/tex] )
[tex]=\frac{m^2p^4}{p^4m}[/tex]
[tex]=m^2p^4p^{-4}m^{-1}[/tex] ( [tex]a^{m}=\frac{1}{a^{-m}}[/tex] )
[tex]=m^{2-1}p^{4-4}[/tex]
[tex]=m^1p^0[/tex]
[tex]=m[/tex]
